This is our #7 in the series of this lesson on Mark 12:33 on the alleged lack of knowledge of the day and hour of Jerusalem’s destruction and the second coming of Christ. I have submitted passages that tell of super-human or above-human abilities and characteristics of our Lord Jesus.  In considering passages about our Lord in relation to his claim of deity we should ask the following questions and give our very honest answers:

  1. Do the statements referring to the pre-human existence of Christ like being the creator of all things visible and invisible in heaven and on earth (Col. 1:15-16; John 1:3; Hebrews 1:10) prove that Christ was a spirit persona before he became flesh born of the Virgin Mary? ____

If the answer is “Yes” do you demand that during the time of creation, Christ should be man of flesh and blood? If your answer is “No” why “no” if you believe that Christ is both deity and humanity?

  1. Do John 17:5 “having glory with the Father before the world was created,” John 8:56, “before Abraham was I am” and 1 Corinthians 10:4 “being the rock that followed Israel in the wilderness giving water” prove that Christ was a spirit persona before his incarnation through the Virgin Mary? _____

If your answer to the above is “Yes”, do you demand that in the time before Abraham and during the 40 years of wilderness wandering, Christ should be in the nature of flesh and blood since we say that Christ is both man and deity? _____

  1. Since the above passages clearly express the non-human state, existence, and power of Christ, do you demand that his human limitations be automatically expressed alongside his divine infiniteness?

If your answer is “No” would it be logical to demand that the divine prerogatives automatically come out when a human characteristic is mentioned in Mark 12:33?_____

  1. When passages mention a non-human (deity) power or characteristic of Christ’s persona one does not demand that the human limitations be mentioned, is it logical to demand that when a human limitation is mentioned one demands that his divine power or characteristic be mentioned to negate the human aspect? _____
  1. Since there is Christ’s voluntary emptying of himself taught in Philippians 2:5-8 and a the presence of a dual nature mentioned in Colossians 1:19; 2:9 and 1 Tim. 3:16, is it not logical that there is the possibility that Mark 12:33 be assigned to his humanity while Colossians 1:15-16; John 1:3; Hebrews 1:10; John 17:5 be assigned to his deity?

To be consistent in our Bible interpretation, we should recognize the dual nature of Christ. So when a human characteristic is mentioned, we should assign that to his humanity but when a divine characteristic is mentioned, we should assign that to his divinity. # (E.Tanicala)

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